Just looked into this - can anyone give me some insight into the differences?

I have only really read over the symptoms of BPD now, and can totally relate on many levels. But my pdoc never thought of it, and went straight to BP II as a dx.

Arg....... I'm so ultra confused right now!??!

Then I read on a site that people suffering from BPD self-harm - which I don't do other than an attempted OD over a year ago