No absolute diagnosis yet, but my current psychologist says my cycle patterns are more typical of bipolar II - rapid and moderate (mostly), yet he is adamant I am schizoaffective (psychosis lasting for 3 months without significant mood swings (possibly thanks to stabilisers)). DSM-IV seems to refer to full manic or mixed or depressive episodes in the SZA criteria. A while back my psychiatrist diagnosed me BP-I on the basis of my being psychotic and highly agitated during the consultation and notched that down to mania. I'm not sure I was truly manic. (But arguably I may not have been in the best position to judge that accurately).

Assuming my BP-II diagnosis is accurate, where would that put me on the current diagnostic classification system (DSM or ICD)? Moody Fruitcake NOS? Or is there actually something that captures this scenario descriptively?