Thanks. I guess I am being thrown off by this: http://www.health.am/psy/schizoaffective-disorder/

"A. An uninterrupted period of illness during which, at some time, there is either a Major Depressive Episode, a Manic Episode, or a Mixed Episode concurrent with symptoms that meet Criterion A for Schizophrenia"

Is the reason for specifying a Manic episode and not a hypomanic episode because somehow the psychosis has to be linked to the Mania (or Major Depression in that case) rather than occurring independently of it?

If you have moderate psychosis and moderate mood disorder, does it become not worth treating because it drops below the radar?