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Old Dec 30, 2011, 05:42 PM
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Ygrec23 Ygrec23 is offline
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Member Since: Apr 2010
Location: Florida
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Quote:
Originally Posted by FooZe View Post
I hope I don't derail this conversation too badly if I go back to Ygrec's thread title for a moment.

-- Supposing that enlightenment were a form of psychopathology, what would its DSM description read like? I'm thinking of the "Any three of the following" part, especially.

-- When patients presented with this condition, what would they come in complaining of? Or if they themselves were unaware of any mental health concerns, what would their family and friends have observed that led them to urge the patient to seek help?

-- When diagnosing it, what other mental health conditions would it need to be distinguished from?
Well, for starters, their families might be complaining that they weren't showing up at work all that regularly these days. Nor spending enough time with the kids playing computer games. Nor watching television with the spouse.

I guess it would have to be distinguished from DDNOS, since they'd spend so much time apparently spaced out.

If they complained of anything I guess it would have to be something to the effect that they didn't understand why so many people were trying to stop them from what they wanted to do.

Of course, if they were enlightened in the jolly and sociable manner of the present Dalai Lama they might actually take part in the current election activity and run for president on the Republican ticket, easily outstripping all the present clowns.

I dunno. Me, I ain't enlightened.
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