This is a rant

I don't understand why BPD is an Axis II disorder and schizophrenia and dysthemia are Axis I disorders. And before anyone gets upset, I'm not dissing either schizophrenia or dysthemia. In fact, I've been diagnosed with Dysthemia in addition to BPD. What gets me is that Axis II disorders are "labeled" as pervasive. (definition: pervading, permeant, permeating) How is schizophrenia and dysthemia NOT pervasive? According to my therapist, I know that I don't fit the diagnosis of BPD any longer but still fit the diagnosis of dysthemia, but it still upsets me that people who are being diagnosesed are being saddled with an Axis II diagnosis--which can affect their ability to get care and influence how medical people view them! I see schizophrenia and my own diagnosis of dysthemia as more pervasive then my diagnosis of BPD. What's up with this? Is it the medical/mental health communities own bias toward us? I get it that we are often a difficult bunch to treat, but it seems unfair and out of line that they label us having an Axis II diagnosis over other disorders.

I get it that most researchers in the area have believed for a very long time that anyone dealing with a personality disorder was NEVER cured. But a lot of the research lately reveals that, at least with BPD and I'm sure some of the other personality disorders, that people no longer "fit the criteria". How is that not a cure and how is that not an example of something that isn't pervasive?????