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Old Apr 09, 2012, 11:05 AM
Anonymous32723
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Ok, I'm first going to say that I am not at all trying to insult anyone who may have this diagnosis. I'm just trying to understand it.

The thing is, the accepted definition of Treatment-Resistant Depression is if at least 2 different anti-depressants haven't worked for the person. But the thing is, at least in my opinion, anti-depressants aren't necessarily the best treatment for depression. Therapy seems to be better, or even a combination of the two.

Plus, the individuals have to come to mind. This is not meant to be insulting at all, but I imagine that certain individuals are more able to overcome their illness. Not necessarily because it's less severe, but because of different factors. Perspective, how they were raised, support system, other diagnoses, etc.

It just seems to me, I guess, that not responding to 2 different anti-depressants would be pretty common in the mental health system, and so a large percentage of people could potentially have TRD. But really, is it that the depression is resistant to treatment? Or is it that the treatment itself isn't good enough?

Any thoughts are appreciated, as always.
Thanks for this!
venusss