I saw my pdoc today, and he casually mentioned that I have "bipolar I". I'm a bit baffled by this; to my knowledge, I've never been fully manic. I think I may have had mixed states, which I suppose could qualify me for the bp I dx. Yet, I think that I would have had some true mania by now (I'm 20) if I was really bipolar I. I've also had some psychosis (mild hallucinations and some delusions) outside of depression; perhaps that is why my pdoc wants to label me as bp I?

Does anyone have any possible explanations? Is there anyone else out there with a bp I dx but no mania?

I think that I still have bp II. I should have asked my pdoc to explain his thought process.