Thread: Question
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Old Jul 29, 2006, 01:41 AM
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I'd suggest the person mentioned gets a more adequete (sp?) evaluation or switch to a more qualifed pdoc to be given the DX of Bipolar

She is seeing a qualified p-doc. Not sure why you are assuming p-docs not qualified or that she didn't have a more adequate evaluation. She has been given a "true" DX. She is in therapy as well.

Once "true" bipolar has been DXed and mood stabilizers have been prescribed, and by a knowledgble (sp?)pdoc the need for AD's is less likely, unless the pdoc is uncertain with their DX.

She is not on Anti-depressents. I don't why you assumed that either.

Maybe it will just take time for them to get the dosage etc worked out.

So the bottom line as far as I can tell is that you think because s-i-l is having mood swings, yet she's on meds that she is non-compliant and/or the p-doc is inadequate?

So if mood swings happen while you're on meds, being compliant and seeing a good p-doc and been DX'ed with "true" BiPolar...it must be something else.

I'll make sure I tell her.