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Old Jan 06, 2013, 12:26 PM
hamster-bamster hamster-bamster is offline
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Member Since: Sep 2011
Location: Northern California
Posts: 14,805
Venus, for sure, the gender bias in the views on promiscuity does exist, unfortunately, but we have come a long way since Victorian England etc. There has been a lot of progress in the last couple of centuries, which we need to acknowledge for what it is - social progress. It probably was better than it is now during the hippie years of the 1960s, but still now it is better than during the nineteenth century so overall the trajectory is positive.

And, whatever we think of the hypersexuality definition in the DSM, we need to acknowledge that it is completely gender-neutral. There is nothing in the DSM that says that it is normal for a male to have multiple sexual partners concurrently but females should be confined to one lest they should be pronounced hypersexual and need to see a p-doc. The gender bias just is not there, and I hope that whoever applies the DSM does so in a gender-neutral fashion as well.
Thanks for this!
BlackPup