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Old Feb 24, 2013, 10:52 PM
hamster-bamster hamster-bamster is offline
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Member Since: Sep 2011
Location: Northern California
Posts: 14,805
Originally Posted by hamster-bamster
When I was prepubescent...

No genital involvement...


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I should think that would make for an easy answer

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George, I do not see your point.

1) You seem to say that if prepubescent, then non-sexual. But how about Lolita? Lolita was prepubescent. Also, as a prepubescent, I had fantasies about boys, relationships with boys, I liked boys, boys liked me, caresses, kisses, all beginning at age 3, so I do not see any connection between puberty and sexual orientation.

2) no genital involvement - again, you seem to be saying that it matters. Again, kisses, caresses were all non-genital. Furthermore, I had an unwilling, non-consensual BDSM experience , as I would put it now, with a boy, without genital involvement, and as a prepubescent (both the boy and I). He was a classmate, probably around age 11, in love with me but conflicted about it, and he displayed his very unusual affection by hitting me on my head with a heavy book during recess or stealing my coat from the school and dumping it in the school dumpster (as discovered hours later) so that I would not be able to go home on a chilly autumn afternoon. Hitting on the head did not involve genitals, and stealing the coat did not involve ANY body parts, genital or non-genital. Yet, everybody including our history teacher confirmed that the aggressive boy was in love with me.