I actually was never hypersexual before meds. It was a stupid label that one p-doc lady attached based on a single datapoint of fantasy, not even action.

I am not sure that hypersexuality is well defined to begin with, but I have never fit any conceivable definition that I have come across so far.

So stupid.

I am now trying to understand how I got into the frame of mind that allowed me to accept that side effect without any reservation or doubt and not even report it to any psychiatrist for 3 years.

Must have been so depressed, feeling so unworthy... whatever.

I do understand that antipsychotics can cause sexual side effects as can SSRI's and Topamax and some others, but can one accept them without ever complaining?