I'm confused why they are diagnosing you with something that was proposed for DSM III-R when they are currently using DSM IV and going to replace it in a few months with DSM V. Since Self-Defeating Personality was never officially included in any of these 3 books, I can't imagine it is all that widely used. For example, insurance companies would not pay for treatment of this disorder. Your doctor would need to bill under something else. And I wonder if courts would accept this as any sort of explanation.

I guess it is all a moot point though if this diagnosis explains things for you and makes you feel understood. Does it?

Best,
EJ