Sorry. I was researching another question I had seen, where a woman asked if she had any recourse after finding out the man she had slept with had lied about being married And they discuss statutory rape. It was pretty much decided no. But you ask inherent. I would just say she handled it wrong. She should not have initiated touching without a discussion. Since she did, yes it was inherently wrong. If the genders were reversed, I think it would be obvious. We would ask wth was he doing? Heck people ask me that.