idk if I voted accurately, its late and somehow the question doesn't seem to match the wording in the choices (in my brain atleast).

I think because Person A gave consent (If I read properly) there was no advantage being taken of Person A.

If Person A had a roofie slipped in their drink unbeknownst to them, that would be different, but in this scenario Person A, innebriated or not, accepted the "roofie" willingly in order to to lower their inhibitions.