Thread: BP I or BP2?
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Old May 10, 2014, 08:38 PM
Anonymous45023
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Curiosity77 View Post
Ok, i was reading dsm-v, and BP nurse is right, BP 2 can now have specified mixed features, so that's new since dsm-iv. But it also says that hypomanoa is not severe enough to caused marked functional impairment or to require hospitalization, which was what i thought, but i checked and confirmed it.

So i'm not sure because the episode that got me hospitalized was mixed. You can get hospitalized for depression and still be BP 2, it's only mania that distinguishes. I'm not sure what severe mixed does to the diagnosis. I had 2 previous episodes that i think were full blown mania, but i didn't see a doctor the first time, and when i saw a pdoc the second time i don't know if he diagnosed 1 or 2. I think i'm kind of 1 1/2, lol. Probably should be 1, but officially diagnosed 2. I guess time will tell if i ever get manic again, but i doubt that will happen if i stay on meds.

So i wonder what mixed requiring hospitalization is classified as. Dsm really doesn't say.
Wow, Curiosity, do I ever relate to your question! (I've jokingly thought the "1 1/2" too, lol.) I'm glad the new DSM recognizes mixed in II, because sure as hell I had a whopper awhile back. My psych said she absolutely would have had me hospitalized. But I was 2,000 miles away at the time (and certainly in no state to set up new provider). That's a really good question regarding how the DSM would categorize a mixed requiring hospitalization in a II. Do you happen to have a link handy to this stuff in the new DSM?