Quote:
Originally Posted by Blues47
Well no, you're talking about either one resolving over time independent of treatment right? So by your own analysis - which I agree with - they are both equally likely or unlikely to do so.
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Why couldn't the anhedonia get better while the panic still remains the same? Why is it that they both have the same likelihood or unlikelihood of either getting better or not getting better? I know that you agree with my argument I made, but is there really any scientific evidence and such to back it up as well as what you are saying here?