What makes you and/or his psychiatrist think he has PDD NOS, which symptoms specifically? I am very curious. I really don't believe in comorbidity in most cases if at all, but I guess it could be. Is there any clear reason to conclude BP or SZA/BP or maybe SZ couldn't have been mistaken for PDD NOS (ASD)?

I am particularly interested because I am afraid a misdiagnosis can be reason to not "dig deeper" and thus blaming to much on ASD. Is his psychiatrist thinking of BP or are you?

Again, I have my theories, but I am not categorically saying it could not be.

Edit:
The first time autism was used as a term, it described the negative symptoms of SZ (no distinction was yet made between SZ and SZA). ADHD-inattentive also has great overlap with SZ/SZA prodromes and the syndromes.

Does your husband have ASD or some of its characteristics, if I may ask (I gather from your signature he has BP-I)?