I understand what you're getting at - is it possible that for some neuro-typical people to take certain meds for one reason or another and have that 'make' them bipolar?

I know some people get their BP diagnosis when they've been prescribed anti-depressants, and then it launches them into mania. The mental health world tends to see this as an indicator of undiagnosed BP prior to the ADs. Are you wondering if maybe it's the other way around? That the BP didn't exist until the ADs caused it?

I don't know the answer to that question. I know for me, learning about BP2 after my T first suggested that possibility to me shone a huge light on my entire life experience. It was the first time so much of my past made sense to me. Meds didn't bring me to the point of diagnosis, and I can identify many BP episodes in my youth prior to the first med I ever took. I think many of us can identify long-standing markers of the BP in our past prior to diagnosis.

I don't know what the experience has been like for those who don't think they experienced any BP symptoms prior to meds.