Yes. I have no idea where it is now.. but I read some kind of editorial by a psychologist who seemed to think that bipolar II was being over-diagnosed due to people's response to anti-depressants. His opinion was that there is absolutely no scientific evidence for a predisposition to BP. Now it could be that this was dated information. He could be alone in this. I hoping to feel the pulse of people here with regard to this.
I was diagnosed with BP after having been prescribed Zoloft (50mg) for depression.. while at the same I was still taking Adderall (25mg). But I don't THINK that the meds have lead to this BP diagnosis. I've lived a life that some might say is textbook bipolar behavior (no full mania.. only hypo).
Anyway.... I guess I'm still trying to wrap my mind around all of this.
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Originally Posted by NoIdeaWhatToDo
I understand what you're getting at - is it possible that for some neuro-typical people to take certain meds for one reason or another and have that 'make' them bipolar?
I know some people get their BP diagnosis when they've been prescribed anti-depressants, and then it launches them into mania. The mental health world tends to see this as an indicator of undiagnosed BP prior to the ADs. Are you wondering if maybe it's the other way around? That the BP didn't exist until the ADs caused it?
I don't know the answer to that question. I know for me, learning about BP2 after my T first suggested that possibility to me shone a huge light on my entire life experience. It was the first time so much of my past made sense to me. Meds didn't bring me to the point of diagnosis, and I can identify many BP episodes in my youth prior to the first med I ever took. I think many of us can identify long-standing markers of the BP in our past prior to diagnosis.
I don't know what the experience has been like for those who don't think they experienced any BP symptoms prior to meds.
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