But I don't get it. How could I be psychotic for a year? It can't be scizoaffective because the whole time I was SEVERELY depressed and sometimes euphoric when I focused enough. With schizoaffective you need to be sychotic at least for 2 weeks without a mood disorder present. So it's not quite schizoaffective, nor bipolar, nor was my mania ever really high, but controlled when I focused hard enough. I had to earn them almost.

How could I have a psychotic bipolar episode for an entire year? I would still be psychotic if I wasn't on meds. My dad has been psychotic since 2001.

On the flip side, how could it be schizoaffective? I have no cognitive decline whatsoever. Nor was a mood free.

Nor did my moods go up and do, up and down. It was always severe depression except when I focus on sex, philosophy and music.

Can anyone help me understand this?