APA calls it a self-medication to alleviate boredom. What are they trying to say? Hmm...

The articles you've read better have scientific evidence that's backed up by studies with respect to an individual’s exposure (present or absent) as well as the dose among those who drink coffee with your type of burden. Populations in Western countries drink more coffee than other parts of the world, what evidence did the writers of the articles have?

Reading about various epidemiological studies and understanding them don't come easy, we need to be always aware that there are bias and confounding factors, we wouldn't wanna miss it. Please watch out for articles that comes out of wazoo.

As for the question, I'm as non-compliant as you are, I take coffee in moderation. (I don't have schizoaffective if you must know.)