I read it and it wasn't clear to me at all and it isn't any clearer now.

I don't understand what do you mean by saying that the therapist's contribution to the therapeutic relationship is "fraudulent". Like any contribution is fraudulent? Are you suggesting that therapy should be conducted without therapeutic relationship? Because obviously any relationship between two people involves contributions from both of them. And I totally don't understand what do you mean by distorting the nature and extent of the subsequent transference. How is this distortion done? How would the positive case look like in your eyes - the therapeutic relationship without therapist's contribution and distortion of things? I'm just asking because to me it is not clear at all what are you talking about.