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Old Feb 23, 2018, 06:49 PM
Anonymous45390
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I've been diagnosed both I and II by different pdocs at the same practice. One thinks mania set off by medication counts, the other one doesn't. Otherwise, I only get as much as hypomanic, even during the years I wasn't on an AP or mood stabilizer.

<shrugs>

So, I vote no.

I don't think it's really clear which one we are in some cases.
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