My son was diagnosed having bipolar disorder in February last year but did not take any meds for it. In October he was prescribed 30 mg of cynbalta for anixiety as the psychiatrist wasn't seeing any evidence of mood swings. He scheduled monthly followups, and at the end of February my son went extremely manc and psychotic (still is) with no dose change precipitating it. Pdoc said it was the cymbalta and Spring mania. Do you think the doctor should not have prescribed it to start with, or is this a normal thing to do, prescribe an antidepressant without a mood stabilizer?