I think it’s just old DSM III language.

It would probably either be bipolar type II or bipolar NOS now (something other than bipolar type 1).

Maybe the pdoc doesn’t believe in BP II. My regular doc says he thinks that’s why I have different dxs from different pdocs. He said some of them don’t believe BP II is a legitimate dx.

It doesn’t matter, really. Some people say it is for insurance purposes. I guess.