I think BPII is often misunderstood.
To complicate things more, as I understand things (from 2 different pdocs), treatment resistant depression is often BPII.

The fact that you have not overspent does not mean you would not have BPII.
I am not impulsive and do not overspend.

Do you think your therapist might misunderstand BPII?

What do you think? Do you think you might be BPII or no?

This question comes up often. It's an important question.

I hope you can get this sorted to your satisfaction.


WC