I have both BP 1 and BPD. And there is definitely a difference.
It may be clients lying because they’ve seen the stigma that goes with a BPD diagnosis. It could be MH professionals not discerning whether their client actually has it or not. It could be societal notions of what BP is.
All I know is the mood stabilizer worked where dozens of meds didn’t.
Last edited by Unrigged64072835; Feb 21, 2019 at 08:12 PM.
Reason: A lot of stuff not relevant to the question
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