Hoping somebody can answer my questions. I'm BP2, PTSD and throw in a little SAD and lots of anxiety. Mainly my question is really about BP though.

When going to my pdoc, she seems to be more concerned with medicating me for my hypomania instead of my depression. I am on meds for my depression but the main concern does seem to be treating hypomania. Also, from my very minute knowledge, most mood stabilizers work mainly on the hypomania/mania end as well, although some like Lamictal and Lithium have some AD properties in them. My question is twofold:

1. Why is hypomania/mania the predominant state that is medicated?

2. Why are mood stabilizers also geared towards that?

Also, I know that some pdocs don't like to give their BP patients any ADs because it could trigger a hypomanic/manic episode.

What I really don't understand is that, at least for me, the depression could be far more dangerous if left untreated or undertreated with meds. I just feel that by putting the emphasis on the manic/hypomanic episodes, that maybe it is better placed on the depressive episodes? For myself, although I could engage in activities that could be harmful for me while hypomanic, while depressed, I can very easily fall so low as to become suicidal. Shouldn't the emphasis be more geared towards keeping the patient from committing suicide, therefore; concentrating on ADs?

I know I have a lot to learn about meds and this is one thing that I have been wondering about for quite some time and I keep forgetting to ask my pdoc about it.

Also, what do you think is the best result that could be achieved from mood stabilizers with ADs, meaning, is it possible to stop the rapid cycling, or is that something that I will always have to deal with regardless of meds? I can sometimes rapid cycle several times within one day, which is extremely tiring, confusing and frustrating.

Anxiously awaiting some answers to my questions. Thanks!