The study says it was conducted on people with schizophrenia who had recently been in jail. I can't help but wonder if that affected their definition.

Not that I disagree that some of those things could be included, but my (granted, unprofessional) understanding has always been that it is simply a notable return of symptoms. (Not that that couldn't lead to some of the issues they list, which is why I don't necessarily disagree with it.)

I mainly don't understand why they include, "quitting treatment due to safety or side effects". Due to safety or side effects? How on earth is that relapse? Not like they're quitting because of delusions or paranoia.

Probably worth mentioning that I'm always on the sceptical side when it comes to studies done by the manufacturer.