View Single Post
 
Old Dec 16, 2019, 08:37 AM
Anonymous35014
Guest
 
Posts: n/a
Quote:
Originally Posted by WhatInThe View Post
The psychologist who administered the testing said my IQ was too high to have ADHD, but that I have depression.
Huh?? I've taken two IQ tests on two separate occasions -- the WAIS IV in 2015 and WASI (I forget which version) in 2016 -- and the psychologists who administered them noted that I have "marked" attention and concentration impairments. My overall IQ was determined to be in the 130s for both, with my attention/concentration IQ subscores residing below 100, and I met the criteria for both bipolar and ADHD.

I'm not tooting my own horn, but my intelligence is definitely not below average, and I would strongly argue that having ADHD does not imply you are "not very intelligent" (or however you want to phrase it). So, if you still do think you have ADHD, I strongly recommend that you look into getting retested somehow. Of course, I don't think anyone "needs" to pay for expensive psychological testing, but I did both because I had no idea wtf was wrong with me. (First test was during a depressive episode; the second test was when my mood was euthymic.)

But that aside, if you do have concerns regarding ADHD vs bipolar diagnoses, you should definitely get another opinion. I mean, I'm obviously not a doctor, but any "doctor" who says you are "too intelligent" to have ADHD is full of it because nowhere in the DSM does it say that it's impossible for someone to be "too intelligent to have ADHD." In fact, a GOOD doctor will look for discrepancies in all of your IQ subscores and make his or her ADHD determination based on the extent of those discrepancies, if such discrepancies exist. If your doctor was trying to say that such discrepancies are small or non-existent, that's different. But to say your IQ was "too high"? Yeahhhhhh, no. Big red flag. If you don't believe me, then look up the DSM-5 criteria for ADHD.

Quote:
Originally Posted by WhatInThe View Post
Is it true having one manic episode makes you bipolar? Shouldn’t the circumstances surrounding the episode also be considered before making a diagnosis?
That statement is both true and false. If a medication is said to have caused a manic episode *AND* you have zero history of manic episodes, then you are said to have "substance-induced bipolar disorder" or "substance-induced mania." That's different from having naturally-occurring manic episodes. However, assuming that you did have a manic episode without the "assistance" of a substance, then yes, all it takes is 1 manic episode to be diagnosed with bipolar. But do know that people with bipolar *can and do* have manic episodes triggered by antidepressants, st john's wort, and stimulants, among other things.
Hugs from:
Anonymous46341, bpcyclist, WhatInThe