Ok....here's why I'm confused. This is straight from the DSM:
Those in <font color="blue">blue </font> are the only symptoms I have - even when I was on anti-depressants. Those in <font color="green"> green </font> I do not have.

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Criteria for Hypomanic Episode (DSM-IV, p. 338)

A. A distinct period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, lasting throughout at least 4 days , that is clearly different from the usual nondepressed mood.
B. During the period of mood disturbance, three (or more) of the following symptoms have persisted (four if the mood is only irritable) and have been present to a significant degree:

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- inflated self-esteem or grandiosity

- decreased need for sleep (e.g., feels rested after only 3 hours of sleep)

- more talkative than usual or pressure to keep talking

- flight of ideas or subjective experience that thoughts are racing

- distractibility (i.e., attention too easily drawn to unimportant or irrelevant external stimuli)
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<font color="blue">
- increase in goal-directed activity (either socially, at work or school, or sexually) or psychomotor agitation

- excessive involvement in pleasurable activities that have a high potential for painful consequences (e.g., engaging in unrestrained buying sprees, sexual indiscretions, or foolish business investments)
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C. The episode is associated with an unequivocal change in functioning that is uncharacteristic of the person when not symptomatic.

D. The disturbance in mood and the change in functioning are observable by others.

E. The episode is not severe enough to cause marked impairment in social or occupational functioning, or to necessitate hospitalization, and there are no psychotic features.

F. The symptoms are not due to the direct physiological effects of a substance (e.g., a drug of abuse, a medication, or other treatment) or a general medical condition (e.g., hyperthyroidism).

Note: Hypomanic-like episodes that are clearly caused by somatic antidepressant treatment (e.g., medication, electroconvulsive therapy, light therapy) should not count toward a diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder.

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So....I'm just confused.

I only have 2 of the symptoms, not 3 or 4, and I only get irritable, not high. And the biggest episode happened when I was on Celexa. So that doesn't count towards the diagnosis...right?

I'm so confused...

My moods NEVER last 4 days at a time. It's never even four HOURS at a time.

I know if I could ever FIND a doc who knew what they were talking about maybe they could explain it!...but that's another issue. I'm working on it. Today, at 11:50, I'm going to just a regular family-practice doctor. I couldn't get in anywhere else until about 2 weeks from now. So...I dunno. I guess just tell him I think I'm Bipolar. And if the meds screw me up, I have an appointment with a Psych nurse practitioner on the 24th..and I think I'm still on the waiting list for the psychiatrist. Who knows when she can get me in...