Did I read it correctly?

As a young child she was inappropriately touched by a teen and you consider that she “let” that happen. She wasn’t in age of consent to “let” anything happen. So if someone molests or takes advantage of a child sexually, it’s ok because child “let” that happened? Or is it ok and no big deal because molester was a family member? I can’t wrap my mind around this. Children can’t give informed consent re inappropriate touch.

In addition that’s mind boggling that you hold it against her.