If you actually read my fking post, you’d realize I was talking about the scenario where MDs pdoc “fired” him without MD having another provider in line. If the pdoc refused to see a client anymore he would not prescribe said client medication. If said client would not be prescribed medication he would not have safe and legal access to said medication. Now here’s where I may be confused. I’m making the wild assumption, based on what MD has written and what I’ve been told since my first diagnosis, that medication is important and that NOT HAVING ACCESS TO THE MEDS **WOULD** BE REALLY FKING BAD!

But maybe I’m wrong and Dewed doesn’t need any sort of Rx…