It seems to me that he was working on a more clear dx? Highly suspecting it was a mood disorder of some kind, with his primary focus being to rule out (or confirm) a highly suspected Bipolar?

I'm not even close to a professional, but that might be one way to interpret it?

KD

*** edited to add:

It could read to me too that he's ruled out the obvious bipolar, but I don't think that would be the case because I don't think he'd allow you to continue to think that your dx. if he'd specifically ruled it out?