Quote:
Originally Posted by cat_eyes
In November past year I went to see a new T. On the second app, he told me that he had already talked to my pdoc to inform himself more about me. The thing is he never asked me before for my opinion about talking to him and I got angry but was so zombified that I said nothing. Was T wrong by doing that?
By the way, I currently don't see any of them (T or pdoc)... they s*cked!
|
It depends, naturally. You may have signed a sort of "blanket" consent for this communication in your initial paperwork, though as someone else pointed out, it also depends on state and federal laws. It also depends on whether or not the two have a business relationship of some kind...whether as part of a group practice or some other professional relationship. If that's the case, sometimes that's enough for the two to share information. That being said, privacy laws can be confusing for both professionals and consumers. It's generally good and ethical practice to get explicit consent from the consumer before sharing information, even when it's otherwise "allowed" or agreed to.
gg