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Old Sep 13, 2018, 11:52 PM
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annielovesbacon annielovesbacon is offline
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Yesterday my pdoc changed my diagnosis from BP2 to BP1 after we talked a little more in depth about hypomanic episodes I've had in the past. I've been in a depressive episode for a while so this was all discussion of episodes months and years past.
He said because these episodes were more severe than he originally thought, he was switching my diagnosis. When I asked him the difference, he said that BP1 is "more damaging" to relationships and work, etc. So because I blew $1000 in a week and hooked up with a ton of people, I could have potentially destroyed a relationship or marriage, had I been in one -- according to pdoc. There were a couple other things, too, and to him this was enough to change the diagnosis.

Obviously he is the doctor and not me, but it was always my understanding that at least one psychotic episode was a requirement for a BP1 diagnosis (I have never had psychosis). Is that wrong?
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  #2  
Old Sep 14, 2018, 02:45 AM
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BipolaRNurse BipolaRNurse is offline
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No, a psychotic episode isn't required for a diagnosis of bipolar 1. You simply have to have had at least one full-blown episode of mania. Psychosis is certainly very common in BP 1, but I know a couple of people who have had psychotic spells and they're diagnosed BP 2. I just think a number of pdocs diagnose type 1 when a patient has such an episode.
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  #3  
Old Sep 14, 2018, 12:16 PM
Anonymous35014
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I agree with BipolaRNurse: you do not need psychosis to be diagnosed with BP 1.

But whatever type of BP you have, the most important things are getting the right treatment to help control your symptoms and learning healthy coping mechanisms for dealing with symptoms.
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  #4  
Old Sep 14, 2018, 02:03 PM
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Tucson Tucson is offline
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A BP I needs to be peeled off of the ceiling. Whereas a BP II has to be peeled off of the floor. A nurse told this too me. Even not completely accurate, I found this to be interesting. FWIW
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  #5  
Old Sep 14, 2018, 02:03 PM
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Blueberrybook Blueberrybook is offline
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I didn’t have to have a psychotic episode or feeling grandiose to get me a BP 1 diagnosis. All I needed was to have a full blown manic episode in my pdoc’s waiting room and office on a scheduled appointment day. Yeah, making that big a scene during mania for that many hours straight in sight and hearing distance of your pdoc will get you moved from a BP2 diagnosis straight to BP1, no question. And I knew what I was doing, no psychosis, not feeling grandiose though I had a ton of hypergraphia and hadn’t slept much for a week straight and didn’t care.
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  #6  
Old Sep 14, 2018, 06:36 PM
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SorryShaped SorryShaped is offline
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I've gone back and forth on one and two.
Back to the original post, those sound like full-blown mania behaviours to me, giving you the manic requirement for bipolar one that was mentioned
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  #7  
Old Sep 15, 2018, 02:21 AM
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annielovesbacon annielovesbacon is offline
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Thanks everyone, that makes sense! Although to use your nurse's example Tucson, I almost always am being peeled off the floor, not the ceiling. But my pdoc told me yesterday that I can be depressed 95% of the time and still be BP1 so I guess that still makes sense.
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