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Anonymous200400
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Default Oct 09, 2015 at 11:31 PM
  #1
Would putting someone on your insurance, as a spouse- (by common law); but then finding out common law isn't recognized as being legal; be considered falsifying documentation?

I really don't understand this whole thing..... but I found out that common law isn't recognized as being "legal". So, I'm thinking now- I'm going to get into trouble for doing this.

Does anyone know about this kind of issue? What kind of 'trouble' might this cause? Would my "spouse" just not really be covered? Will this cause problems with my job, since I have a job sponsored health insurance?

I'm so confused and worried at the same time.
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(JD)
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Default Oct 12, 2015 at 03:23 PM
  #2
On the surface it does look like fraud...

You have to check your own State's laws, and then check with the insurance company's guidelines. There's nothing across the board that refuses to recognize common law marriages imo.

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Default Oct 13, 2015 at 07:28 AM
  #3
I think you can definitely conclude that this common-law spouse of yours is definitely not covered.

The first thing for you to do is make sure your domestic partner, as I would now call this person, completely stops obtaining any healthcare through your insurance. Then just wait and see what happens.

If your D.P. has not yet run up any major bills that your insurance has paid, you may not have any terrible consequences. (That's just me guessing.)

There are 10 states where common-law marriage is still legal.
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