[Tnao]

I found this online:
"Research had shown that patients affected with schizophrenia keep a very promiscuous sexual behavior, loveless towards their partners.
The reason for this complainable conduct has to be searched in the altered dopaminergic system of schizophrenic patients; in fact they are able to feel the first phase of love (attraction) but they are completely unable to step forward into the second phase, which is romantic love.
Neurotransmitters involved in the process of attraction are fully working but the ones involved in romantic love are compromised, therefore they can’t work properly.
That’s the reason why schizophrenic patients can’t bond affectively with anyone."
I don't think this is true. Does any one believe it?

[costello]

Originally Posted by Tnao

Does any one believe it?

I don't believe it. It sounds absurd to me.

[jadeprincess01]

what are you talking about I'm a schizophrenic and I can love.

I disagree too.

Originally Posted by Tnao

I found this online:
"Research had shown that patients affected with schizophrenia keep a very promiscuous sexual behavior, loveless towards their partners.
The reason for this complainable conduct has to be searched in the altered dopaminergic system of schizophrenic patients; in fact they are able to feel the first phase of love (attraction) but they are completely unable to step forward into the second phase, which is romantic love.
Neurotransmitters involved in the process of attraction are fully working but the ones involved in romantic love are compromised, therefore they can’t work properly.
That’s the reason why schizophrenic patients can’t bond affectively with anyone."
I don't think this is true. Does any one believe it?

No I dont believe it , it has all the hallmarks of psuedo scientific misadventure. Its easier to say that sz sufferers have a problem with intimacy because many are simply not stable enough to have robust relationships. Relationships require a level of honesty and self expression and its just too stressful for the normal joe blogs who has sz.

[justmeandmyhead]

I don't see how you can claim something like that for EVERY person with schizophrenia everyone is different maybe some do but there are so many factors involved. You can't generalise something like that

[Sometimes psychotic]

It's a little odd to me since for me the powers of attraction really aren't that effective but romantic love is much stronger----at 39 now I've still never slept with anyone so I'm pretty much the antithesis of what you described. Several people here have identified as asexual so I don't really think I'm an extreme outlier on this....

Originally Posted by justmeandmyhead

I don't see how you can claim something like that for EVERY person with schizophrenia everyone is different maybe some do but there are so many factors involved. You can't generalise something like that

I dont think he/she is really claiming anything as such , just quoting or paraphrasing some studies. Regardless intimacy is an issue in sz and given the sympthoms its a natural implication that people with sz do not fare too well in intimate relationships. On generalising , sometimes it can be expedient to do so. Thats why we have a dsm manual and diagnostic criteria in the first place.

I think your point is that people should have no boundaries interms of what they can an attain in intimate relationships.

[justmeandmyhead]

I wasn't having a go at the poster it may have looked like that though sorry. I just think there's so many different combinations and types if schizophrenia that I find it hard to see how you can claim something one for all

Originally Posted by justmeandmyhead

I wasn't having a go at the poster it may have looked like that though sorry. I just think there's so many different combinations and types if schizophrenia that I find it hard to see how you can claim something one for all

No worries. I dont know your dx , and you might not even wish to be defined by it, which is fair enough but diagnostic criteria for sz , means , at least should mean , there are specific sympthoms associated with the dx. And it is these sympthoms that are predictors for many things and intimacy , close relationships is one of them. I take your point that people sit on a scale of severity but all I would say is that a sz dx in itself should also predict severity interms of sympthoms.

[justmeandmyhead]

My dx is schizophrenia and I've been in a long term relationship for over 6 years

[justmeandmyhead]

I understand what your saying about symptoms and predicting problems though I feel a little picked on now if I'm honest.

Originally Posted by justmeandmyhead

I understand what your saying about symptoms and predicting problems though I feel a little picked on now if I'm honest.

Well if you feel this way, please dont , I like to be challenged and exchanging conversation, its just the way I am.

I have my views on sz , that are fairly forthright, if you look at my history you'll see what im talking about. So dont feel like im the be all on the subject , I have diagreed with some in the past. One view of many

[Sometimes psychotic]

Originally Posted by justmeandmyhead

I understand what your saying about symptoms and predicting problems though I feel a little ganged up on now if I'm honest.

I think there are two things going on here....one what we call schizophrenia isn't any one thing just like the common cold is not caused by a single virus but it's effectively treated the same way regardless of which of over 200 viruses caused it. So there is heterogeneity but also commonality...same with sz

The second thing is that to have the dsm definition of schizophrenia you must have social and occupational impairment...if you are holding down a good job and have lots of friends and a mate then any diagnosis of sz would actually be a mis-diagnosis because sz implies social disfunction whereas other psychotic conditions do not. However I'm not sure that this type of impairment is required in the ICD-10 which is often used outside the US so even in this regard schizophrenia is heterogenous...

[justmeandmyhead]

Originally Posted by Sometimes psychotic

I think there are two things going on here....one what we call schizophrenia isn't any one thing just like the common cold is not caused by a single virus but it's effectively treated the same way regardless of which of over 200 viruses caused it. So there is heterogeneity but also commonality...same with sz


The second thing is that to have the dsm definition of schizophrenia you must have social and occupational impairment...if you are holding down a good job and have lots of friends and a mate then any diagnosis of sz would actually be a mis-diagnosis because sz implies social disfunction whereas other psychotic conditions do not. However I'm not sure that this type of impairment is required in the ICD-10 which is often used outside the US so even in this regard schizophrenia is heterogenous...

I think that's what I was trying to say you put it a lot better.
I think there has to be impairment across different aspects of like work and social in the ICD 10 too. For me I've managed a relationship but that's about it and it's not been easy. I have no friends in rl and no job but somehow my partner has stuck around.