[caringmum]

My son was diagnosed having bipolar disorder in February last year but did not take any meds for it. In October he was prescribed 30 mg of cynbalta for anixiety as the psychiatrist wasn't seeing any evidence of mood swings. He scheduled monthly followups, and at the end of February my son went extremely manc and psychotic (still is) with no dose change precipitating it. Pdoc said it was the cymbalta and Spring mania. Do you think the doctor should not have prescribed it to start with, or is this a normal thing to do, prescribe an antidepressant without a mood stabilizer?

[Wild Coyote]

With BP1, there would generally be a mood stabilizer.
With BP2, when depression dominates the picture, there might not be a mood stabilizer. Just my own experience/understanding. (I live with BP2.)

I hope others will comment.


WC

[caringmum]

Originally Posted by Wild Coyote

With BP1, there would generally be a mood stabilizer.
With BP2, when depression dominates the picture, there might not be a mood stabilizer. Just my own experience/understanding. (I live with BP2.)

I hope others will comment.


WC

Thanks. I am trying to figure out if the pdoc was careless or if it was just bad luck!

[Wild Coyote]

If your son was diagnosed with BP1 and was given Cymbalta without a mood stabilizer? I'd say the pdoc was very mistaken and any pdoc should know better. Just my own humble opinion though.

I do hope others will comment.


WC

[Victoria'smom]

Was the pdoc that diagnosed your son with BP the same as the one that prescribed the anti depressant? No two doctors seem to agree on the proper medication/diagnosis for young adults.

[caringmum]

Yes, it was the same doctor.

[Wonderfalls]

I agree that the doctor was taking a big risk if he believed your son had (or even might have) bipolar. Antidepressants don't necessarily trigger mania early on. I'm hoping the doctor has now prescribed an effective mood stabilizer.