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#1
May 09, 2009, 06:55 AM
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I'm a bit confused on the difference between these fallacies, and if when you have one, then would you also have the other? And if not, then when and why would you have only one but not the other?
The fallacies in question are: Argumentum ad Novitatem (aka Bandwagon) Argumentum ad Numerum Argumentum ad Populum Argumentum consensus gentium I think that ad Populum and ad Numerum are equal but not sure. Also, what is the difference between Argumentum ad hominem and Tu Quoque fallacy? Also, please do not tell me to look these fallacies up online. I've been looking them up online for a while already and am confused. I'm sure there's some small tiny detail that I've repeatedly over-looked but I cannot find it. |
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This is an old thread. You probably should not post your reply to it, as the original poster is unlikely to see it.|
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