[LiteraryLark]

I'm bipolar, but I have never experienced any symptoms outside of the one incident that got me diagnosed, which I still believe has nothing to do with bipolar disorder. Odds are, I likely am. My grandmother on my dad's side is bipolar. One minute I'm at the mall, the next I'm taken to a hospital and suddenly I'm Harry Potter, which I think is a natural reaction to the fear of being crazy.

Now, I'm working on coming completely off the meds. At first, my pdoc rolled his eyes when I told him a month after I am out of the hospital that I want off the meds. 6 months later, he told me getting off the zyprexa would be a good goal. A year later, I am completely off the zyprexa with no symptoms whatsoever, and now he believes that I can get off them.

But don't most people with bipolar...have symptoms? I came back to PC after two years because I thought it would help me get through the symptoms and adjust to a new lifestyle...and that hasn't happened. No symptoms, no need to adjust. Nothing wrong with that, but now I'm questioning if I'm truly bipolar anymore. I read the posts people put here in the BP forum, and I haven't experienced any of that. The only thing I do and have experienced is depression. I've been depressed my whole life up until the incident. Now that I'm on meds, the depression is gone. I've never had any mania growin up beside the one incident. Isn't the point of mania is that it's supposed to be ongoing and reoccuring?

I'm thinking that when I get off the lithium, which my doctor predicted will be a year to a year and a half from now, I will ask to be reexamined. I don't think it will prove anything or erase anything from my medical records...but then at least I'll know for sure...

Idk...I guess I should be happy I'm not affected by it, but I'd rather just not be labeled at all...

[Moose72]

I think suddenly being Harry Potter is a side effect of Mania.

[LiteraryLark]

I know hallucinating is a part of mania, but I don't think it was. I think when I realized I was in the hospital because my dad thought I was crazy, naturally I did the only thing logical for someone who is crazy, which was to act crazy.

[Moose72]

I've never had to act. I dunno if you call it "crazy" or what but I was always severely not tracking, if that makes sense, at the PER. Sui and homi even. I truely had gone over the deep end. I didn't sensor myself, but I didn't act either.

[Clinte89]

I dont agree with the statement "...my dad thought I was crazy, naturally I did the only thing logical for someone who is crazy, which was to act crazy." as I dont believe its logical to act crazy. It sounds like you had some mania. I agree with moose. Although Im not you nor a doctor.

Wish I was you

Some people only have one major episode. Some can go years between episodes.

I can see where having a diagnosis without symptoms could feel weird. But that diagnosis may be your best friend if you fall apart any time later in life.

You may be aware of what is happening before or as it is happening. You may not...but you have the word to say to someone in an emergency or a really bad spot. Many bipolars are treated for depression for years before they get the right diagnosis. You will be able to avoid this.

If symptoms return, but are less extreme, you have something to work with.

I am happy for you that your doc is looking at a med free future for you.

Everyone is different on the relating. I relate to much of it because I have a very good memory, but am well most of the time....thanks to meds.

Can't say I relate to being Harry Potter

Dr.Skipper, weren't you on a med when this incident happened? Maybe I am remembering incorrrectly but I thought you had started an AD or something. If that was the case that could explain a lot.

To me it had sounded like it could have been a med induced mania, which does and can happen with AD's even to people who do not have Bipolar. I could be remembering wrong so if I am than ignore this.

[LiteraryLark]

I think I was on an AD. I don't remember anymore. But I wasn't acting either. I did beileve I was Harry Potter.

[Seaswept]

I was diagnosed at 16 had problems on and off until I was 19 and then went off the meds.

I was okay other then some mild depression from time to time, even had 3 babies and then Bam, 17 years later had a manic episode.

This episode was definitely induced by an anti-depressant. I went on Zoloft after my dad died, my doctor slowly increased it when it wasn't working. That along with some other major stressors in my life sent me into hypo-mania and then mania and wound up in the hospital.

I have had 2 more major manic episodes that sent me into the hospital with 4 years and 2 years in between. The last 2 were more extreme than the 1st meaning I went into psychosis and believe me I had all kinds of delusions and hallucinations.

[Seaswept]

I hope you are right that you don't have it, maybe it was an isolated incident. Only time will tell for sure.

[LiteraryLark]

I was on zoloft too at the time!

[BlueInanna]

They gave my son zoloft when he was 12, made him have some manic rages. Every AD they tried on him sent him to mania
Sorry you had to go through all this hell Skipper. But even if you go off meds, you can be on the lookout for a manic episode. You have valueable info from your past experience that it could happen, and be prepared to avoid some of the havock the that the mania can cause.
I'm more of the depressed type, so that worries me personally than mania. Plus i'm dx bpII so my episodes were only classified as hypomanic. It's all so confusing, isn't it? Clinical diagnoses are just that, not an exact science.

[Trippin2.0]

I thought med-induced mania isn't concidered bipolar, especially if there are no prior or future instances...

...wow yeah I'm all a bit confused here too umm?

manias and hypomanias and this and that and if they are natural or un-natural or logical or where they whatsa' ...it's all so specifically individual the things that trigger each person and what experience follows and how it's interpreted and why. I suppose that 'logic' for a person acting 'crazy' has a whole new definition so anything is possible there.

but then...it might not be fair on yourself to be calling yourself or your behaviour at the time 'crazy'...? the experiences we can have are hard enough yep.

I wonder that having the 'label' is the least of the problem Skipper, but it's great if you are managing without so much of the medication..

maybe you be just a 'part-time' bipolar

..oh yeah....a huge and whole new realm are the medications and weird effects. I took only two doses ofzoloft years ago and got meself stuck on a cliff face! ...a place I had no business bein' there at all

[BlueInanna]

Originally Posted by Trippin2.0

I thought med-induced mania isn't concidered bipolar, especially if there are no prior or future instances...

I don't know! It's all so confusing. I remember when my son first started on meds, they were AD's, and I felt worried they weren't helping. And the docs said that AD's making someone worse are a possible sign of BP. But he has since had manic episodes without being on any meds. They haven't wanted to dx him BP since he's under 18, but I've pushed for it because of our family history and to try to keep him safe with the right meds and therapy, and school accomodations.

This is covered in the DSM-IV. Med-induced do NOT count towards dx. That doesn't necessarily mean that one doesn't meet enough other criteria, simply that that type of thing doesn't count.

Criteria for Manic Episode (DSM-IV, p. 332)
E. The symptoms are not due to the direct physiological effects of a substance (e.g., a drug of abuse, a medication, or other
treatments) or a general medical condition (e.g., hyperthyroidism).

Note: Manic-like episodes that are clearly caused by somatic antidepressant treatment (e.g., medication, electroconvulsive therapy,
light therapy) should not count toward a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder.

************
Criteria for Hypomanic Episode (DSM-IV, p. 338)
F. The symptoms are not due to the direct physiological effects of a substance (e.g., a drug of abuse, a medication, or other
treatment) or a general medical condition (e.g., hyperthyroidism).

Note: Hypomanic-like episodes that are clearly caused by somatic antidepressant treatment (e.g., medication, electroconvulsive
therapy, light therapy) should not count toward a diagnosis of Bipolar II Disorder.

*********
Same disqualifier in depression:
Criteria for Major Depressive Episode (DSM-IV, p. 327)

D. The symptoms are not due to the direct physiological effects of a substance (e.g., a drug of abuse, a medication) or a general
medical condition (e.g., hypothyroidism).

E. The symptoms are not better accounted for by bereavement, i.e., after the loss of a loved one, the symptoms persist for longer
than 2 months or are characterized by marked functional impairment, morbid preoccupation with worthlessness, suicidal ideation,
psychotic symptoms, or psychomotor retardation.

*************
*************
(P.S. Yes, I know that it can be an indicator, and that "direct" and "clearly" might be tricky to determine, but still very much think it is useful, if not incumbent, to go to the official resource on the matter.)

Ok, back to the positively gargantuan to-do list! (Procrastinating much? )

[plumapplepear]

I am bi-polar 1 and have had long periods of no problems even a stable10 year period with no medications. Then later in life I started having problems I try and stay on my medicine depakote because without it my moods are very unstable and I do not want any of the drama that has come from my unstable periods. I caused alot of grief and lost contact with my family over the mental illness. Just saying everyone is different and it is a hard illness to diagnosis. Kudos to you for reaching out for information.

[cocoabeans]

Yea, that's the thing about "bipolar" it is used to predict future outcomes and you get preventative drugs but, maybe you're one of those people who can go years without an episode or maybe it was a fluke. Lots of people with bipolar disorder have periods without symptoms. Well, symptoms bad enough to qualify them for diagnosis (the dsm gves everyone symptoms!). Some people even have a psychotic episode and that's that. They recover and move on like some weird blip in their life.

The diagnosis may be helpful oneday if you get depressed or manic but, yes! Try going med free. Question the fortune telling qualities of "bipolar disorder" and don't worry! Be aware but, don't lose your happiness to woes about mania.

Besides, you can't really judge having bipolar based on support groups. I think a lot of people come here mid-episode or right after diagnosis for support, some are struggling daily but, not everyone. It's a bit skewed I think.

[eclogite]

Others might disagree with my reasoning, but I consider myself BP2. I was diagnosed MDD but it never felt "right". I went on a very low dose of SSRI and edged my way up to one legitimate manic episode. I have an extensive family history of mental illness, but in particular one instance of schizophrenia (associated with same gene as bipolar).

It doesn't actually matter what my technical diagnosis is. My medication treatment is consistent with someone with BP2, and my depression is not strictly unipolar (cycles even w/o med even if I'm not 100% hypomanic; it truly is a spectrum--what's normal?). Before medication, I have had high energy hyperverbal distractible phases. Were those hypomania? Maybe, maybe not. There's no clear cut line between personality and hypomania. In addition, I have no way to go back in time and observe myself more carefully.

Finally, I might not actually be BP2 right now, but BP is something that shows itself over time. My experience with cycling and how well my issues respond to a BP2 treatment plan have me convinced that I am BP2.. even if I'm not DSM-IV "certified". Psychology is an evolving science that is still being explored. Have you read about all the issues with DSM-V?

Everyone's experience is unique. I think it's best to find what experiences best resemble your own and try to learn from those.