[Secretum]

I saw my pdoc today, and he casually mentioned that I have "bipolar I". I'm a bit baffled by this; to my knowledge, I've never been fully manic. I think I may have had mixed states, which I suppose could qualify me for the bp I dx. Yet, I think that I would have had some true mania by now (I'm 20) if I was really bipolar I. I've also had some psychosis (mild hallucinations and some delusions) outside of depression; perhaps that is why my pdoc wants to label me as bp I?

Does anyone have any possible explanations? Is there anyone else out there with a bp I dx but no mania?

I think that I still have bp II. I should have asked my pdoc to explain his thought process.

[cocoabeans]

Depending on your pdocs definitions bipolar 2 is no psychosis not mixed states, if those go to bipolar 1. Does it matter? Not at all. Treatment is the same. Stigma will vary.

[Victoria'smom]

I figure the stigma is the same because the average person just hears bipolar. It really depends on your doctor, I know my husband is dx'ed with bipolar II but if he had my pdoc it'd be bipolar I. My dx. has been upgraded many times. I think as pdocs and therapists get to know our struggles they are able to give a better Dx.

[hamster-bamster]

I have BPI and I started having manias past age 20.

[Confusedinomicon]

I think depression with psychosis can give you the BPI diagnosis.

I think I'm BPI and I've had mixed episodes.

[Secretum]

Thanks for the clarification; I guess that bipolar I does make some sense. I've accepted it enough to change my signature.

I still would love to hear from anyone else who has bipolar I but no mania. Thanks!

[BipolaRNurse]

I'm half afraid I'm going to wind up with a dx of bipolar I because of the recent bout with mania, as well as the mixed episode I had last winter. I never lost contact with reality, didn't hallucinate or anything like that, but I did have the manic and mixed episodes. So why do I think I'm BP II instead?

Dunno why I should be concerned about the designations---all of it is bipolar disorder, and I don't like any of the options.

Originally Posted by Secretum

I saw my pdoc today, and he casually mentioned that I have "bipolar I". I'm a bit baffled by this; to my knowledge, I've never been fully manic. I think I may have had mixed states, which I suppose could qualify me for the bp I dx. Yet, I think that I would have had some true mania by now (I'm 20) if I was really bipolar I. I've also had some psychosis (mild hallucinations and some delusions) outside of depression; perhaps that is why my pdoc wants to label me as bp I?

Does anyone have any possible explanations? Is there anyone else out there with a bp I dx but no mania?

I think that I still have bp II. I should have asked my pdoc to explain his thought process.

mate ...you have nuthin to worry about yet ok!

I can tell you are consciencious...yes..YES....save it buddy for when the crap really happens....

[BNLsMOM]

I have bipolar 1 because I can look back on my life and see where I have had mixed episodes and some manic behavior. Also, my recent episodes have involved psychotic features like paranoia and the occassional hallucination. I went through most of my manias in my 20s. I am 38 now. I miss that energy now. I am working hard on my recovery and I feel positive that my hard work will pay off.

On the paperwork for my latest hospitalization (a couple of weeks ago) it says Bipolar 1 latest episode depressed with psychotic features.

[hamster-bamster]

The European classification does not distinguish between I and II. Do not worry to much about the designations. Get the best possible treatment - that is what is important.