95% of male T's have felt sexually attracted to a client.

I would take that statement with a grain of salt personally.

What were the inclusion criteria for the survey? If it was a voluntary survey then the sample is going to be biased and the results would be questionable at best - particularly if the purpose of the survey was being advertised. Also, how many men actually participated in the survey? If there is a small "n" then the generalizability of the results could also be questionable. I also think that there is a huuuuuge grey scale for what "attracted" to a client means. If it just means that they find them generally physically attractive, then its basically just a survey asking men how many of them are attracted to women.

Just my two cents...

If you have truly consensual sex with your therapist, it is bad manners to report it, in my view. (The same applies to sex with a married partner.) The rules are to protect the innocent, not for spiteful revenge.

I sort of see where you're coming from but then I don't. Some women with a history of sexual abuse for instance might use sex as a way to take back the power when in the past they felt powerless. In other words it's a maladaptive way of using sex. A T isn't going to help the situation if he/she engages in sex with clients that acts this way.

If you have truly consensual sex with your therapist, it is bad manners to report it, in my view. (The same applies to sex with a married partner.) The rules are to protect the innocent, not for spiteful revenge.

I think the rules are to protect the state's interest. The state represents "the people", not so much a person. We dont really care if the person is innocent or not, technically, ie the person upon whom a crime has been committed. But it makes you wonder about that attorney. If i was the old doc, i would have looked for a way to file a civil suit against her. Something seems wrong there. If ignorance of the law is no excuse, then knowledge of the law should be actionable!